Dear all,
this should be simple, yet somehow I seem to have forgotten my mechanics 101.
Referring to the attached image, I have a pin that runs in a slot. The pin is mounted onto a arm (highlighted in red) that rotates about T1. The part with the slot in it rotates about T2. So when the arm/pin starts rotating, the part with the slot turns about T2.
Assuming I know the torque input at T1 = 3.5 lb-in, then the resultant force F should be 3.5/1.25 = 2.8 lbs. No problems there.
Then, the resultant torque at T2, I think, is 2.8 * 0.4 = 1.12 lb-in.
Does that seem correct to you all? Where I am getting tripped up is in the interaction between the pin and the slot....I think I may be overly simplifying this.
I appreciate any input.
Andri